This letter was written to an Ahmadi brother in response
to his invalid interpretation of the verse 2:4.
Salam Alaikum Brother Razi,
For the purpose of keeping our discussion as clear cut as
possible, I will be using MS word as a platform to indicate any inconsistencies
that I may find in your refutation on the topic “Have revelations ended?” What
is crucially important for both of us to understand is the position we uphold
regarding the topic of discussion.
So the topic at hand is “Whether Revelations have ended
or not?”
Clarification before we head
towards the analysis of your article:
Being a follower of Imam Abu Hanifa, I adhere to the
following belief that Prophetic Revelations have ended. Inspirations (ilham),
however will continue as a means of blessings from Allah subhantallah. Why I do
not specifically call Ilham a medium of communication, is because we as Muslims
are blessed with the opportunity to communicate with Allah 5 times a day, and
also through making Dua’h/Zikr. Restricting means of “communication” with Allah
to only means of inspirations/ilham is minimizing the bounty of Allah. Because,
receiving Ilham is a bounty that is mostly bestowed to pious worshippers. But
Allah is merciful and promises to hear even the duah of the non-believers. So
communication with Allah is indeed open through various ways, and also to the
weak and hedayah seeking Muslims.
As aforementioned, Prophetic revelations according to
orthodox Islam have ended with the coming of the final revelation of the Quran.
As I read your refutation Brother Razi, I realized that you have confused
“ilham” with the specific kind of revelation that we believe has ended.
Difference between Ilhaam
and Wahy (although sometimes the terms are used interchangeably but nonetheless
the characteristics of both differ):
1. The Arabic word wahi comes from the root word waha and
is used to describe divine revelation. It has a variety of different meanings
in the Arabic language, being interpreted as “a quick or divine indication”,
“to give or convey a message”.
2. Another difference between Prophetic wahi and
non-Prophetic wahi is that Prophetic wahi is to be compulsorily
accepted/complied with by the ummah of the Messenger. But non-Prophetic wahi is
for personal guidance of the person receiving wahi; Hazrat Isa’s companions and
Hazrat Musa’s mother received wahi for their personal guidance.
3. Ilham is open to both a follower and a prophet, but
‘Wahi’ that descends upon a prophet to propagate a message from Allah, is
solely confined to Prophets of Allah.
4. Such is the revelation that requires Muslims to
profess faith in.
5. No pious being is required to “propagate” his ilhaam
so that Muslims may attest faith in it.
It is also worthwhile to know, that the basic idea behind
prophetic revelations ending and not revelations as a whole because “prophetic
revelations” fall in line with the Quranic revelations or hadith e qudsi.
Receiving any prophetic revelation after Muhammad saw, would be an addition to
the two sources of Islam, the Quran and the Ahadith. However, an example of non
prophetic revelation is the one received by Hazrat Asiya. Such may prevail for
as long as Allah wills.
Difference between the
interpretations of verse 2:4:
Orthodox Interpretation:
“And who believe in what has been revealed to you, [O
Muhammad], and what was revealed before you, and of the Hereafter they are
certain [in faith].”
Ahmadiyya Interpretation:
And who believe in that which has been revealed to thee,
and that which was revealed before thee, and they have firm faith in what
is yet to come (Chapter 2 Verse 5)
Quranic Syntax:
Evidence from the Quran in
support of Orthodox interpretation (prophetic revelations have ended):
Whether or not Al-Akhirah can be interpreted in the way
you have interpreted is not the subject of concern, because by giving you the
benefit of doubt, and accepting both the definitions attributable to this term,
it still does not eliminate the inconsistency found in applying your version of
definition to the word “Al akhirah” in 2:4.
Because in the light of other verses in the Quran, where
part of verse 2:4 is identically repeated it clearly shows there is no mention
of any revelation/message that is termed as "yet to come". And it also shows one is
definitely not required to believe in anything other than revelations sent to
Muhammad saw and to prophets before Muhammad saw in order to receive rewards in
the hereafter.
Verse 4:162:
Sahih International
But those firm in knowledge among
them and the believers believe in what has been revealed to you, [O Muhammad],
and what was revealed before you. And the establishers of prayer [especially]
and the givers of zakah and the believers in Allah and the Last Day - those We
will give a great reward.
In this verse the promise
that Allah makes is clear on this condition that those who believe in what was
sent to prophets before Muhammad saw and in that which was sent to Muhammad saw
will attain a great reward. Believing in “what is yet to come” is not required.
Verse: 3:99:
Sahih
International
And indeed, among the People of the Scripture are those who
believe in Allah and what was revealed to you and what was revealed to them,
[being] humbly submissive to Allah . They do not exchange the verses of Allah
for a small price. Those will have their reward with their Lord. Indeed, Allah
is swift in account.
The verse indicates two crucial points:
(1) Allah guarantees rewards to these people from among the
People of Scripture for believing in what was
revealed to Muhammad saw and what was revealed to the prophets before him (notice: these people were not required to
believe in revelation that “WAS YET TO COME”).
(2) This verse speaks of believers who embraced faith before
the advent of Muhammad saw (why I mention this, is because
I know the counter argument that I may receive regarding this can
be to the effect: “the reason why they are not required to believe in
revelations after Muhammad saw, is because the revelations did not exist at
that time or were not determined”. But Allah subhantallah still made the
revelation of Muhammad saw necessary to believe in when it also did not exist
in their time).
Verse: 5:59:
Sahih International
Say, "O People of the
Scripture, do you resent us except [for the fact] that we have believed in
Allah and what was revealed to us and what was revealed before and because most
of you are defiantly disobedient?"
The verse
indicates a few crucial points:
(1) This verse was revealed to Muhammad saw, it indicates that
Muhammad saw and his followers had no fault, but to have believed in what was
sent before him, and what was sent to him.
(2) It also indicates that “what was yet to come” was not a
part of Muhammad saw’s faith.
(3) This surah was revealed after surah Baqarah in
which “Al akhirah” is translated to mean “revelations yet to come” by AMJ.
(4) Surah Baqarah was one of the earliest revealed Surahs. It
was also revealed before surah Al Nisa (Al Nisa verses mentioned above).
This is a crucial point to ponder over because as per the
AMJ interpretation, the promise of revelation which “was yet to come”
(2:4) was made in the earliest time and yet the verses revealed after (2:4)
STILL DIDN’T require Muslims to believe in revelations to come after Muhammad
saw.
Verse: 4:60:
Sahih International
Have you not seen those who claim to
have believed in what was revealed to you, [O Muhammad], and what was revealed
before you? They wish to refer legislation to Taghut, while they were commanded
to reject it; and Satan wishes to lead them far astray.
This verse speaks of the hypocrites, who claim to have
believed in what was sent to the prophets before Muhammad saw, and in what was
sent to Muhammad saw, yet still wished to derive judgment from Taghut. Again,
this verse indicates that the requirements for submission to Allah was to
profess faith in the revelations sent to the prophets before Muhammad saw, and
to that of Muhammad saw. Again, nothing of the sort which is “yet to come”
appears in this context.
Inconsistencies in your
refutation:
PART 1:
(the
following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“The non Ahmadi
Muslims try to quote:
“And who believe in
that which has been revealed to thee, and that which was revealed before thee, and
they have firm faith in what is yet to come (Chapter 2 Verse 5)”
“The translation of
the non Ahmadi Muslims differ and they state that because the translation
according to them is:”
“And who believe in
what has been revealed to you, [O Muhammad], and what was revealed before you, and
of the Hereafter they are certain [in faith].”
“This would mean
revelation has ended.”
Correction: It
means “prophetic revelations” have ended, revelations which require Muslims to
profess faith in. Ilhaam would indeed continue among the pious believers.
PART 2:
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“Hazrat Mirza Bashiruddin Mahmood Ahmadra states: …The word “al-Akhir”
(what is yet to come” means either “the message or revelation which is to
follow” or “the Last Abode”, i.e. the next life. Of these two meanings the
first is more applicable here; for it fits in with the other two parts of
the verse which speaks of God’s revelations”
“The other two
parts of the verse which speak of God’s revelations” are also identically mentioned in verses 3:199, 4:60. 5:59 and
4:162, then why don’t these verses also include connotation that refers to
future revelations?
PART 3
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“…In this connection
it is also noteworthy that….future revelation was not yet definite and
determined at the time when the verse was revealed, so the word
ىقىن was used for it.”
“The subject of the
matter of the latter part of this verse, referred to in the words, “what is yet
to come” finds further explanation in 6:3,4”
“…. Promised Messiah… in whose advent have
been fulfilled also the prophecies of other Prophets regarding the
appearance of a World-Messenger in the latter days”
These are three inconsistent
statements. Mirza Bashirudin first proposes that “future revelation was not yet
determined”, then he quickly offers 6:3 to explain how the advent of Promised
Messiah was definitely determined, and foretold by many of the prophets even
before the advent of Muhammad saw.
I fail to understand what
Mirza Bashirudin has intended to imply by saying future revelation was not yet
definite and determined at the time of this revelation? Hypothetically he could
mean any of the possibilities:
a. Allah
Almighty was not sure whether to send the Promised Messiah or not?
b. The
time and location was not yet determined?
c. What
kind of message Allah almighty wished to send?
But all of these 3 cases are
devoid of logic in a matter relating to the Supreme Being. They are also self
refuted by Mirza Bashiruddin’s own following statements (shown above). Allah
Almighty is all knowing and the knowledge of unseen is ever so clear to him.
PART 4
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“Furthermore, the non Ahmadi Muslims accuse us of translating
al-akhir as what is yet to come, and claim that the word can only mean what is
in the hereafter or in regards to the hereafter. This is totally false and
their own translations have translated al-akhir as something which had to come
in the end times. Allah States:
Now, if you do well, you will do well for your own souls; and if
you do evil, it will only go against them. So when
the time for the latter warning came, We raised a people against
you to cover your faces with grief, and to enter the Mosque as
they entered it the first time, and to destroy all that they conquered with
utter destruction. (Chapter 17 Verse 8)
‘We have not heard of this even in the
latest religion. This is nothing but a fabrication.(Chapter 38 Verse 8)”
“The non Ahmadi Muslims accuse Ahmadi Muslims of such a
translation, when their own primary translators have translated al-akhira as we
have.”
You claim the Non Ahmadis scholar also translate “al
akhirah” in the same sense as you have, but “al akhirati is not used to mean
“what is yet to come” or “what is to follow” in neither of the examples that
you have quoted.
If you read the context of
17:8, Allah speaks of Children of Israel causing corruption on earth
“twice”, Allah gives them two promises in relation to that (17:4,5,6) First
promise is of wealth, to perhaps test them, and the second (al akhirati)
promise is of punishment. The word Al akhirati only means “second”, or final”.
It cannot mean “what is yet to come” because the promise is already established
and drawn upon the Israelites. The following reasons also demonstrate why it
cannot be defined in the same way:
(1)
The verse speaks in a past tense: “..So
when the time for the latter warning came..” therefore,
you cannot define “Al akhirati” to mean “what is yet to come” or “what is yet
to follow”. The structure of the verse
will not make sense: So when the time for the “what was yet
to come/what was yet to follow” warning came..”
(2)
You also fail to realize a very crucial point
here the word ‘Al Akhirati’ is placed next to another noun “promise”, which is
also being modified by it. If you add
“what is yet to come/what is yet to follow” next to “promise/warning”, you’d
see the context would become incoherent.
(3)
Also since preceding verses
show the promise/warning was already made clear to the Israelites before it was
sent upon them, it was definite and determined, therefore “Al akhirati” cannot
be referred to as “what was to come” because “what was to come” signifies
something that is yet unknown.
(4)
You also mentioned “al akhirahti” is translated
as “something which had to come in the end times”
in relation to this verse but the verse does not even relate to the “end days/end
times AT ALL (please read the background
of every verse before you quote).
So in short Verse 17:8 uses al-akhirati as “second/latter” promise.
It is used in connotation to describe a noun. It doesn’t stand alone as a noun
(as it does in the case of verse 2:4).
Same goes for verse 38:8, “last/latest” religion. The word
al-akhirati again modifies the noun “religion”. It doesn’t stand alone as a
noun. You cannot apply “what is yet to come/what is yet to follow” in this
context either, because “latest” is actually modifying the noun “religion”.
“We have not heard of this even in the “what was yet to come”/”what was yet to follow” religion. This is nothing but a fabrication. (Chapter
38 Verse 8)”
Also, it is apparent you have never
bothered reading the background of this verse, this verse refers to the
religion brought by Jesus a.s. When the idolaters were told to worship one God
and abandon their idolatry by Muhammad saw, they furiously retorted saying “We
did not even hear this in the last/latter/latest religion that was brought” – i.e.,
the religion that came before Islam.
Your understanding of this verse
surprises me Br Razi. If you think this verse refers to a religion which was
“yet to come” then, why does the verse state: “We
have not heard of this even in the
latest religion”
How do you think these idolaters would
know what was in a religion that was “yet to come”?
Now, coming back to the verse 2:4, Al Akhirah used in this
verse stands as a noun alone and does not modify anything in relation to itself “and of the Hereafter they are certain [in
faith]”.That is a crucial difference
between this verse and the 2 examples that you have quoted. To translate “al
akhirah” to mean “revelation which is yet to come” also puts burden of proof on
you to prove whether “what is yet to
come” actually refers to revelation, judgment or resurrection?
PART 5:
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“Allah has
made it Clear in this verse that how can the people of Mosesas take a calf as a Lord when it is condemned as
a deity, since it does not speak or guide them in any way. This shows that the
only way Allah can remain a true deity, is if He speaks to His servants and
Guides them. Those who think that God used to Speak and reveal Himself in
the past alone are in complete error and should not have such a blasphemous
belief. Speaking is an attribute of Allah which will never cease and Allah
Speaks at all times, and those who possess the capacity and quality to hear
Him, can Hear Him till today. It is a foolish belief to say that all types of
revelation have ended since the Death of the Holy Prophet Muhammadsaw. Revelation does not mean a new law and it is needed for the freshness
of spiritual life and helps one become Closer to his Creator.”
You have quoted a number of examples
implying Allah communicates with his people. But the dispute is not over
whether “Allah communicates with his people or not” the dispute is over the
certain kind of revelation the verse 2:4 speaks of:
And who believe in what has
been revealed to you, [O Muhammad], and what was revealed before you, and
of the Hereafter they are certain [in faith].
(1) This verse speaks of revelations that we as Muslims are
required to believe in, in order to be Muslims. Which are the revelations all
prophets were given by Allah. These revelations are known as “prophetic
revelations”.
(2) The difference between prophets and followers is that
Prophets receive both kinds of revelations: Ilham and Wahy.
(3) Whilst Pious followers only receive Ilham.
(4) The revelation that all prophets receive are meant to be
propagated to others. Allah subhantallah states in the Quran that every prophet
was given the revelation to propagate God is one (that is an example of
prophetic revelation).
(5) The ilhaam that pious followers receive are personal
inspirations from God, which are blessings that comfort our souls. It is not a
message that one has to convey to other Muslims. It can be shared nonetheless
but it doesn’t require propagation.
(6) It is not a message which Muslims need to profess faith
in.
Many Muhadith have claimed
to have received Ilhaam, many pious worshippers are also given Ilhaam, but that
is a specific type of revelation, it not a prophetic revelation. That is why it
doesn’t go against the verse 2:4.
This is why we believe
Prophetic Revelations have ended with the demise of Muhammad saw, who was the
last Prophet to come. The Quran in many places signifies the belief in previous
prophetic revelations and the revelations of Muhammad saw. It does not signify
belief in any prophetic revelations “as yet to come”. The Quran is itself a final book of revelations. The sunnah is the final
code of shariah. If more prophetic revelations were to come, what Islamic
source would you compile these revelations into? The Quran? Or the Ahadith? If
these additions are to be made, then Rasulullah saw would have never said Islam
has been completed in verse:
5:3 “This day I have perfected for you your religion and completed My
favor upon you and have approved for you Islam as religion. But whoever is
forced by severe hunger with no inclination to sin - then indeed, Allah is
Forgiving and Merciful.”
PART
6:
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“These
verses make it clear that Allah spoke in the past, He Speaks now, and will
always Speak in the future as well. Some have a misconception that Allah only
reveals to the prophets. “
Again,
I had made it clear to you, the revelations in question were a specific type of
revelations known as the prophetic revelations. Because 2:4, clearly speaks of believers
“who professed faith in former revelations and in that of Muhammad saw” – it
doesn’t speak of all Ilhaamic revelations sent upon people.
“Surely, We have sent revelation to thee, as We sent
revelation to Noah and the Prophets after him; and We sent revelation to
Abraham and Ishmael and Isaac and Jacob and his children and to Jesus and
Job and Jonah and Aaron and Solomon, and We gave David a Book.(Chapter 4 verse
164)
This verse only mentions of revelation to Noahas and the Prophets after him, but there were Prophets before
Noahas which included
Idrisas and also Adamas. With the non Ahmadi Muslim logic, it would mean they were
not revealed to and were false prophets, God forbid.”
You
allege that based on our logic we would interpret this verse to mean Allah only
sent revelations to selective prophets. This only reflects ignorance on your
part Br. Razi because you have demonstrated that you simply do not understand
the basic meaning of verse 2:4 and you think everything is based on “assumption”.
Which is never the case, we Muslims do not “assume” the meaning of Quranic
verses. So to break it down to you, verses 3:199 and 4:162 clarify the
following meaning:
Those
of you who believed in A
And
those of you believed in B
Will be
given a reward in the hereafter.
This
verse doesn’t cause us to assume “there will be no revelations to follow” but
it causes us to UNDERSTAND that belief is only required in the revelations sent
to Muhammad saw and to those before Muhammad saw. And since Allah mentions that
we must believe in all prophetic revelations that means when there is no
requirement of believing in revelations after Muhammad saw, there shall be no
prophet after Muhammad saw either!
The verse (4:163) was
revealed as a rebuttal to Jews claiming that Hazrat Musa a.s as was the last
recipient of “revelation”. The rebuttal was to prove that Allah has revealed to
Muhammad saw just as he revealed to other prophets. Perhaps the reason why
names of prophets are selectively mentioned is because to refer to their method
of revelations. Notice, the name of Musa a.s is also not mentioned in this
verse, but it is mentioned in the following verses, where Allah subhantallah
mentions of “directly” speaking/revealing to Musa a.s. The verse doesn’t say
“believe in the the revelation sent to Nuh a.s and the prophets after him” so
there’s no way you can use it to prove that we're making assumptions with verse
2:4.
(the following text in red is from Br Razi’s blog)
“Despite all of this proof form the Qur’an, the Non Ahmadi
Muslims are forced to believe that the Messiahas would be revealed to. Indeed if the latter day messiah is a
prophet according to Allah, than of course he would be revealed to as Sahih
Muslim states:
“Allah would reveal
to Isa these words: I have brought forth from amongst My servants such people
against whom none would be able to fight; you take these people safely to Tur.”
(Sahih Muslim 2937a)”
The hadith aforementioned
doesn’t raise any disputes for a Muslim who believes “prophetic revelations”
have ended. The content of this hadith doesn’t require “propagation” to other
Muslims. This could merely be an “Ilhaam” that assures Hazrat Esa A.S of
Allah’s foreshadow and mercy and provides a solution. Again, this hadith
doesn’t prove anything to the effect that “prophetic revelations” will
continue. Perhaps, one thing you might also want to notice, this information is
already a part of the ahadith, related to us by Muhammad saw.
Conclusion:
Your whole argument has been
rendered inconsistent because of the fact that you have not even understood the
“type” of revelation verse 2:4 speaks of. You were also mistaken to believe
that Muslims believe “all kinds” of revelations have ended, yet in reality we
only believe prophetic revelations have ended. The reason why we believe that
is so because it is necessary for a prophet to receive “prophetic
revelations” and then call people to adhere to them. And since, we are
only required to believe in the revelations sent to former prophets and those
sent to Muhammad saw, it is made clear that no other prophet is to follow
Muhammad saw.